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Questions from those who Oppose the King James Bible


After you review these, please also review questions that you should ask those who take opposing views of the King James Version!  Click Here to Continue to the Questions.


Question:
Must we possess a perfectly flawless bible translation in order to call it "the word of God"?

Answer:
No. Did you like that answer ?

I answered 'No' but that's not my real answer. Why? Because obviously, people today tend to call anything the "Word of God" regardless of it's origin and regardless of whether it even remotely accurate. You can have Dr. Seuss and all his writings if you wish, and call that the Word of God but it doesn't make it so. Just because someone labels something "the Word of God" and calls it a Bible, does that make it true? According to today's modern Christian, ANYTHING that resembles a Bible is true.

Ok...so the REAL ANSWER is YES. WE MUST POSSESS a perfectly flawless bible.

To explain further: What would you think if you walked into a Christian Book Store today and found copies of Anton LeVey's Satanic Bible for sale? What if those same bibles replaced the word Satanic with "Holy". Do you believe there would be people who would buy them? Of course they would...after all... it SAYS "HOLY". Would THAT be an accurate representation of the Word of God? Of course not. Well, in the same light, let me ask you: 

What makes an ACCURATE translation? With which of the following do you agree?

1. A translation is accurate because we can look into and determine the THOUGHTS of the original writers and therefore can make an extremely accurate bible!

2. A translation is accurate because it copies Word for Word, the things contained in the original documents.

3. Accurate? Who cares about accurate, as long as I can READ it!

I would hope that you would have chosen Number 2 above.  

If the answer is that a Translation must be ACCURATE, are there bibles that are NOT accurate?

Consider the following well-documented facts:

1. There are versions that were translated by known occultists.

2. There are versions translated by those who hate and despise the sound doctrinal teaching of the bible, such as those doctrines that teach the deity of Christ, the Virgin Birth of Christ, the Atonement, etc.

3. There are versions translated from documents that are entirely false.

Only YOU can make the choice to follow and embrace or to utterly reject these corrupted bibles. 


Question:
Why does the King James Only crowd "limit" "the word of God" to only ONE "17th Century English" translation?

Answer:
The question is misguided. Let me ask a few questions of you in order to understand your viewpoint:

Why is it that when we have a version that we know is accurate and reliable, that modern men feel compelled to "modernize" something in order to fit with his current thinking? Why is it that they must always tamper with things Holy, all in the name of "better understanding"?

Does modern man now believe that MILLIONS of men, women and children were saved and went to heaven using an Inaccurate version of the bible? OR, Does modern man believe they all WENT TO HELL (which by the way is a place denied in modern versions anyway), because they DIDN'T have an accurate version of the bible?

Do you believe that no generation before today's translations was accurate in their belief of God? Do you believe they weren't as "educated" as today and therefore, couldn't possibly have had any stronger faith than we? Judging from today's society, do you believe we are closer to God than any past generation? If you believe that, can you explain ALL the original documents from just a mere couple hundred years ago when the United States of America was founded (i.e.. The Federalist Papers, penned by none other than the author of the Constitution himself?) Can you explain why every Speech made by George Washington included multiple references to not only 'God' but to our Lord Jesus Christ?

Did God wait until the 1900's in order to give us the "Full Truth" of the Gospels? Is that what you believe? If that is true, then there has been 1900 years of error and people everywhere for those years have been lost.

There is a very real reason why modern man argues that the KJV Bible can't be understood. Read Romans 8:7 and 1 Corinthians 2:14 for starters. It can't be understood by some because they CANNOT understand it. Doublespeak you say? Sure it is. An unregenerate, unrenewed mind cannot understand the things of God.

I believe if God gave us his gospel (and he did), which we know is accurate and reliable (and it is), then we should learn to read it, memorize it, and accept its teachings. 


Question:
If the King James Version is the accurate Word of God, then where was "the Word of God" prior to 1611?

Answer:
In the same place it was from the beginning. The Word of God was written down in his Greek and Hebrew Manuscripts, that the KJV translators acquired and were able to use for their solid and accurate work, the King James Version.  


Question:
If the King James Version is the 'accurate' Word of God, then what about the Pilgrims? Didn't they use the GENEVA Bible?

Answer:
Yes, and most people who use the King James Bible can understand this. The Geneva Bible was first produced in 1560: 50 years before the King James Version. Guess what Text they used to translate it and all other English Bibles of the Day such as Tyndale's (1526-1530), Cloverdale's (1535), Matthew's (1537), and the 'Great Bible' (1539)?

Does anyone have a good guess?

Right. The Greek Textus Receptus.

Now, YOU tell me: WHY did the Pilgrims use the Geneva Bible and not the King James Version?  The answer is that the Pilgrims had left Holland before the KJV was complete. The KJV was started 1603/1604, but it was not complete until 1611.  By then, the Pilgrims were already in Holland, and had their Bibles with them, which were the Geneva Bibles.

Take a look at the works and sermons of the pastor of the Pilgrims, John Robinson, and read his sermons. Look at the dates and the texts he based his sermons on.

Hmmm....I wonder why the text agrees with the King James Version, even though he didn't have a King James Version bible to use?

Do you think it could be that the Geneva Bible and the King James Version were translated from the SAME GREEK TEXT?


Question:
Do you believe that the Hebrew and Greek used for the KJV are "the word of God"?

Answer:
Yes, do you NOT believe that?

If you do, then you should be using the same Greek and Hebrew Texts that were used for the KJV and all other Bibles prior to that time as well (with the exception of the textual corruptions of the Catholic Church and Eusebius & Jerome....note....you can read Jerome's OBJECTIONS that are plainly declared in his writings.

He objected to the use of anything except the Greek and Hebrew "Received Texts", however his objections were overruled and due to an obvious lack of moral fortitude, he wrote as instructed instead of refusing to perform the work from corrupted manuscripts. 


Question:
Do you believe that the Hebrew and Greek underlying the KJV can "correct" the English? 

Answer:
I don't think your question accurately reflects truth. That's not to say that you are lying, but I believe what you are asking is this:

"Do you believe that the ALEXANDRIAN texts can correct the KJV English?

Let me answer both arguments.

There is no need for the "Hebrew and Greek" to 'correct' the English King James Version. The KJV is the accurate representation of the Greek and Hebrew and was translated word for word (not a "let's guess what they were thinking" type of translation as in today's modern versions such as the NIV).

Even those who advocate Modern Bible Versions agree that the KJV is an excellent version and highly accurate. They just (usually) don't believe that the 'language' is up to date (or at least, that it their excuse).

Let me speak on that matter for a moment. The argument is always that the King James Bible is too hard to understand.

Well, for you that really believe that, there IS a Bible that I recommend just for you. In fact, this is the ONLY other one I've ever recommended that steps outside the traditional language of the King James Bible. Note that it IS a King James Bible, but, it uses a "you and yours" type of language instead of the "thees and thous" that many complain about. This version takes away all the excuses of the "I can't understand basic English" crowd.

It is called the EVIDENCE BIBLE..Check it out!.

Now for the second part of that (my rephrased question). Do I believe the Alexandrian texts can correct the King James?

NO, Not in any form or fashion. Do YOU believe that texts with some 90+ average BLOTTED OUT words, lines, verses, etc. (PER BOOK) are accurate?  It is ludicrous to believe that a manuscript with an average of 90 verses per book blotted out is accurate in any form or fashion.


Question:
Is the KJV "scripture"? Is the KJV "given by inspiration of God"? [2 Tim. 3:16] 

Answer:
Any accurate translation of the Word of God is "scripture". Any accurate translation of the Word of God is – itself – "given by inspiration of God".

Why is it that Modern Version advocates think that if words are not specifically Hebrew or Greek, that the truth and the accuracy of them must automatically depart from those words when they are translated into another language ? There is simply no basis for this assertion.

It's as if Modern Version advocates want to force KJV advocates to "admit" that the Holy Spirit somehow does not work, and that God is no longer sovereign if He is not operating in today's corrupted English.

Modern Versions often use arguments to limit the power of God. KJV advocates know that the Lord operates in English and that He does in His own sovereignty in other languages as well. KJV advocates praise God for this.

But that does not take away from the fact that Modern Versions are strong departures from the Greek and the Hebrew and make no pretense to even be reconciled to the historic Bible Manuscripts used by the Christian Church for 2000 years.

The issue is Not that KJV advocates do not believe that God cannot use Hebrew or Ancient (Koine) Greek, or any other language for that matter (after all, our Lord spoke Aramaic), but rather the issue is that Modern Version translators have no intention of using solid Biblical Ancient Manuscripts, and they have been proven to have every intention of departing from them. 


Question:
WHEN was the KJV "given by inspiration of God" ? 

Answer:
The Short answer is when the Translators were doing the work of translation. For the Long answer, read the studies on
bible versions on this site. Any Bible that: accurately represents and speaks the Word of God, and conveys the Words of God in the most accurate way possible, accomplished by Linguists who are saved and have the Holy Spirit inside of them, and that reconciles with the Greek Textus Receptus and the King James Version...is THE Word of God.   The language of the translation matters little.

On the other hand, any Bible that refuses to accept the words as they are written (translating word for word) and instead tries to guess what someone was 'really' thinking 2000 years ago is based entirely upon supposition. That version is NOT inspired, except in the imaginations of man. (2 Corinthians 10:5)


Question:
Where does the Bible teach that God will perfectly preserve His Word in the form of one seventeenth-century English translation? 

Answer:
This is the kind of 'politically correct' nonsense questions that shows both a lack of knowledge concerning the bible and shows the contempt with which many today view the Word of God.

Do you seriously believe that those who hold the KJV in high regard today are saying that no versions of the Bible existed before the KJV ? That is ludicrous to believe that.

These type of questions are designed, as with all the politically correct garbage today, not to get an answer to an honest question but to mislead others concerning what KJV advocates are actually saying.

The Bible was preserved long before the King James, and the King James faithfully follows in that tradition, which is historically grounded in Greek and Hebrew Manuscripts that date back to the time of the Early Church.

May I ask you, then a question? Do you actually believe that man can second guess someone who lived 2000 years ago? Do you believe you can read a 2000 year old letter and guess exactly what the man was thinking at the time? Do you believe that changes in our culture actually CHANGE the Word of God? This is the way of the politically correct thinkers of our day.

Let me submit to you that TRUTH does not change despite the changes of culture. TRUTH remains constant, whether we like it or not. For example, the color white is not 'white' because someone believes it to be that way. It is white because it is a fact and it is TRUE. 

Perhaps you could answer some of MY questions found at this link! 


Question:
Did the KJV translators mislead their readers by not having ALL the facts? 

Answer:
KJV opponents like to say that the KJV translators relied on too few manuscripts. Let me submit an alternate view: It would not matter if all they had was ONE manuscript, if the manuscripts that they used were and are the accurate ones. The end result would be exactly what we have now: an accurate translation.

It is noteworthy to mention that "modern scholars", when confronted face to face, won’t entirely ignore the manuscript record, and are quick to point out that 98% of the Bible manuscripts Agree with the Greek Textus Receptus and that they DISAGREE with the Greek Texts used by Westcott & Hort (The Alexandrian Texts and others).

Why then, do men cling to the 2% of invalid texts? I submit to you that it is because the 2% appeals more to their FLESH than does the 98%. 


Question:
Did the great Protestant Reformation (1517-1603) take place without "the word of God"? 

Answer:
NO ! In fact, it took place because the Catholic Church was insisting on Not giving people the Word of God, as much as possible. Back then, the Roman Catholic Church made it a crime punishable by death, to own a copy of the Bible (or the writings of Luther or Calvin) that was not translated from the Latin Vulgate of Jerome. This is a period of time we call the DARK AGES

Knowing and realizing that the Roman Catholic Church had corrupted the Bible – and then used this to justify un-Biblical doctrines and rituals, the Protestant Reformers protested and began learning as much Greek and Hebrew possible, and they began also to teach as many common people how to read (something that the Roman Catholic Church did not want the people to know).

The Protestant Reformers faced many Textual Critics in their own day. Most of those textual critics were following the same line: trying to get common people to be misled into agreement with the top leaders and Cardinals of the Roman Catholic Church and their corrupted Bibles. 

The attacks and statements were the same as those of today:

You can’t speak because you’re not authorized (or as well qualified)

You don’t know as much as we do (after all YOU'VE never been to cemetary ... oh I mean seminary ... school)

You don’t have any credentials we have approved

You don’t have our permission to think for yourself (well, not if it disagrees with our position)

You can't find God without a modern bible because your OLD one is inaccurate and too hard to understand.

The reformers were mostly ignored before, and they will be ignored in today's society as well – for the very same reasons.

Most Textual Critics supporting modern versions today are Bible attackers who are trying to get people to NOT rely on the Bible, as being the reliable Word of God.
During the Reformation, Luther began his own translation of the Bible into German, and Calvin began translation projects of the Bible into English, French and Italian (and worked with Spanish translators also). The versions that were commissioned by Calvin (through his co-worker Beza) ARE the GENEVA Bible. The Geneva Bible is based on the Textus Receptus. The translation of Luther is also based on the Textus Receptus and agrees with it, while also disagreeing with Modern Versions. Was Luther wrong? If he was, friend, you need to convert to Catholicism immediately! 


Question:
So you believe that we need Reformers today?  Do you think with nearly 2000 years of Christianity behind us that the Church of Today is not accurate in their beliefs and their worship? 

Answer:
This is another 2 part question.  

Part One:

Do I believe we need reformers today?  Absolutely

Do I believe we need preachers today to stand up against the "name it and claim it gospels"  Yes I do. 

Do I believe we need preachers today to preach about hell?  Yes I do. 

Do I believe we need preachers today to spell out sin and tell people how to get rid of it?  Yes I do. 

Do I believe the church is promoting a gospel of wealth and health rather than of salvation?  Yes I do. 

Who among you will be a reformer?  Only God can answer that. 

Do we need reformers?  Yes.

Now for the Second Part to the question above: 

Do I believe the majority of the "Church of Today" is not accurate in their beliefs and worship?  Yes, that is exactly what I believe for the most part.  Let me explain.

I believe men have rejected the truth of God's word in exchange for a lifestyle of pleasure.  I believe that Sound Doctrine is no longer taught in the Church of today.  I believe men have cast aside the faith once delivered to the Saints and have instead adopted a gospel of  "acceptance, tolerance and embracement" of any lifestyle that decides to call itself Christian.  Let me give you an example that will make many of you very angry.  If It does, please don't ask me to apologize.  I will not.  Why?  Because truth is not  "dependent upon how you look at it".  Truth is truth.  

Here is an example of how many in the church today have been corrupted into accepting LASCIVIOUSNESS:

I don't know of ANY women who would go to the store, buy a simple bra and pair of panties then put them on and wear them to the beach (I'm quite sure there are those who are vile and obscene enough to do so, however, I don't know of them personally)  There aren't many men would would buy a pair of briefs or boxers, put them on and wear them to the beach. 

BUT.... there are MANY today who will take that same underwear, paint it yellow, or red or blue and then call it a bathing suit.  They will THEN wear THAT to the beach.

Interesting.  I asked a law enforcement friend of mine what would happen if a woman showed up at the city pool in her underwear.  He, without hesitation, stated that he would be forced to arrest her for indecency.   I then asked him what was the difference between underwear and a bathing suit.   He stated that he had never thought about it that way.

Do we need reformers?  Yes, Absolutely.  We need Reformers.

Will they be popular?  No, according to today's thinking, they will be old-fashioned, outdated, politically incorrect and "evil". 


Question:
IF... the KJV is "God's infallible and preserved word to the English-speaking people," did the "English-speaking people" have "the word of God" from 1525-1604? 

Answer:
Yes, it was the Geneva Bible, the Textus Receptus, and the other versions that agreed with the Greek and Hebrew documents of the time. 


Question:
Does the singular "oath's," occurring in every KJV at Matthew 14:9 and Mark 6:26, "correct" every Textus Receptus Greek which has the plural ("oaths") by the post-1611 publishers, misplacing the apostrophe? 

Answer:
Your question is one that has a very obvious underlying thought or motive. Is this a printer's mistake? POSSIBLY. Some say yes, others say no.

I believe what you are really asking is this: "If there is a printing mistake, doesn't that invalidate the argument for the King James Bible being right?

NO, it doesn't invalidate the argument.

To talk about the mistakes of a printer (if that is what this really is) is one thing.
To talk about men, who were not saved, who were occultists, or who were enemies of the Cross of Christ...actually being allowed to translate the Scripture from known corrupted manuscript (as in the New International (per)Version or others...on purpose is something very different.

There is no equivalence between the two, so let’s not be trying to suggest that there is. 


Look for More Questions and Answers Coming Soon!

Don't forget to review questions that you should ask those who take opposing views of the King James Version!  Click Here to Continue to the Questions.

 

 

 



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