I receive email from time to time asking certain "hard questions".  I decided to include these "hard questions to answer" on the site.  I'll post more as they come in.

Keep in mind...these are ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS, THIS IS NOT TEACHING TIME! There is no way I can fully teach the subject in response to a question!

For TEACHING on the Godhead and a FULL EXPLANATION (versus brief answers) study The Godhead  teaching found on this site.

Question: Is Jesus His Own Father? 

Answer Given By Some: Yes, Jesus is his own Father and he said so in John 10:30. Jesus is the Father (in relation to His deity), and the Son of the deity (in relation to deity working through Humanity). 

Correct Answer: NO. JESUS IS NOT HIS OWN FATHER, NO MATTER HOW YOU LOOK AT IT. Nor is Jesus "divided" into 2 persons. John 4:24 plainly declares "GOD IS A SPIRIT". A "SPIRIT" DOES NOT have "flesh and bone". Period. You CANNOT show that by the Word of God anywhere. I can, on the other hand, show you a scripture that declares exactly what I have just told you. Luke 24:39 "Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have." John 1:18 declares "No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." 1 John 4:12 again declares "No man hath seen God at any time..." Colossians 1:15 says Jesus is the image of the INVISIBLE GOD! Can one see that which is INVISIBLE? 1 Timothy 1:17 declares the same thing.

You may ask about the Old Testament manifestations of God. I would suggest that first you determine just who Melchizadek was (no father, no mother, no beginning of life, no ending of days), THEN you look up the word "THEOPHANY", and after that, you ask yourself how Moses spoke face to face with God when God had NOT been manifest in the flesh yet. For those of you who want to argue that God was "manifest in the flesh", please read and reconcile 1 Timothy 3:16.  

To summarize: JESUS WAS NOT HIS OWN FATHER and declared, "...my Father is greater than I..." (John 14:28) 

Question: Was Jesus praying to himself in the Garden of Gethsemane?

Answer Given By Some: No. His Human side was praying to his Divine side. Since Jesus was both God and man, he was man praying to the "God side" of himself. In a sense, He is praying to himself, but when you understand it properly, you see that his flesh was praying to his spirit. Those that ask these questions are trying to split Jesus and make it sound as if there are actually 2 "wills" in the Godhead. 

Correct Answer: NO. Jesus was not praying to Himself. Again, this shows a complete lack of understanding on either side. Jesus, though God in the flesh (John 1:14) was also fully man and as such, had a need on this earth to eat, to drink, and to sleep. He also had, as we do, a need to pray. Who did he pray to? Let's look at His own words in scripture: 

Matthew 6:9 "After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name." You will also see this in Luke 11:2. 

John 17:1 "These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee..." 

Paul spoke of Christ: 

2 Corinthians 5:19 "To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation." 

Again, to whom did Jesus pray? Himself? That is ludicrous. He prayed to God, the Father. THAT is what the scriptures declare ......and God the Father is.....??? A SPIRIT THAT FILLS THE UNIVERSE! Even while God walked the face of this earth in the BODY OF JESUS CHRIST (again, see 1 Timothy 1:17, Colossians 2:9, read also Hebrews 1:2-3), GOD was still a SPIRIT. Jesus declared that to be true. Any other view is a distortion of the plain scriptures. 

Question: If Baptism is essential for Salvation, then what happens to someone who repents of sin, accepts Jesus as Savior, walks across the street to get baptized but is killed by a car. Does he go to heaven or hell?

Answer Given By Some: He goes to Hell.

Correct Answer: Poor fellow, he's in quite a dilemma now isn't he? Let me ask for more details then I'll give you MY answer in the form of a QUESTION. When you can give me a sufficient Biblical answer to MY question, I'll answer yours.  

Let me explain:. 

I need more details: Had the man ever had an opportunity to repent ever in his life? Had he ever heard the plan of salvation before or was this the first time ever that he has heard about Jesus? Did he ever on the radio, television, in a magazine, on a billboard, at work ... anywhere at all, hear about the "Good News"? Did he own a bible before? Did he ever have access to one? Was he raised in church? You see, you are trying to point blank ask a loaded question. The fact is that if he ever had just one single opportunity in the past to accept Jesus Christ as his Lord and Savior and rejected that opportunity, then he is guilty of his own blood. THAT is the Word of God. Here are your references:  

Ezekiel 33:8-9 " When I say unto the wicked, O wicked man, thou shalt surely die; if thou dost not speak to warn the wicked from his way, that wicked man shall die in his iniquity; but his blood will I require at thine hand. Nevertheless, if thou warn the wicked of his way to turn from it; if he do not turn from his way, he shall die in his iniquity; but thou hast delivered thy soul." 

2 Corinthians 6:2 (For he saith, I have heard thee in a time accepted, and in the day of salvation have I succoured thee: behold, now is the accepted time; behold, now is the day of salvation.) When? When one hears the Word.  

Acts 17:26-27 "And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation; That they should seek the Lord, if haply they might feel after him, and find him, though he be not far from every one of us:..." 

To finally answer your question:  

If a man must repent of their sins in order to be saved, what would happen in this scenario:  

An entire village of people are pagan in belief and worship and have never heard the Gospel of Jesus Christ. God moves upon a preacher to go to them and preach to them, but as the plane headed for their country touches down, suddenly the plane veers off the end of the runway, crashing into the jungle killing everyone aboard including the preacher. Are those people saved?  

If you say NO, then you are unfair and judgmental since they WOULD have obeyed the Gospel IF they had heard it. BUT since the preacher was killed they could not hear the Gospel and be saved.  

If you say YES, then you violate the Word of God. How? The scriptures say: 

Acts 15:9 "And put no difference between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith." 

Ephesians 2:8 "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:..." 

Galatians 3:8 "And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed." 

Galatians 3:26 "For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus." 

Romans 10:13-17 "For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved. How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher? And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things! But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith, Lord, who hath believed our report? So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God." 

The Bottom Line Is This:  You Sir, should be ashamed for even considering to ask a demonically guided question such as this. This is exactly the types of questions posed to Jesus by the Pharisees and Sadducees in an attempt to prove themselves right and someone else wrong.  

The fact is that YOU have violated the scripture by even desiring to ask such a question. I believe that you KNEW when you asked the question that you were trying to be "slick" and to "trap" someone into your own way of thinking. This violates the scriptures in a couple of respects: 

Galatians 6:1 "Brethren, if a man be overtaken in a fault, ye which are spiritual, restore such an one in the spirit of meekness; considering thyself, lest thou also be tempted." 

If you thought one was overtaken in a fault, it is certainly your duty to prove by the scriptures that he is wrong in a spirit of meekness CONSIDERING YOURSELF. It was Absolutely your duty to provide SCRIPTURES in order to win that person to the Lord. It is by the WORD of God that a case should be made or that it should be disproved. 

In addition: Titus 3:9 "But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain." and finally,  

2 Timothy 2:23-26 But foolish and unlearned questions avoid, knowing that they do gender strifes. And the servant of the Lord must not strive; but be gentle unto all men, apt to teach, patient, In meekness instructing those that oppose themselves; if God peradventure will give them repentance to the acknowledging of the truth; And that they may recover themselves out of the snare of the devil, who are taken captive by him at his will. 

Perhaps you should examine yourself to see whether you are truly in the faith before asking such a question. (2 Corinthians 13:15).  

Furthermore, perhaps a good study of salvation itself would do you some good. First, you must determine WHAT salvation is. Follow the words of Jesus stating that Repentance and Remission of Sins (Salvation) would FIRST be preached beginning at Jerusalem. (Luke 24:47) THEN go to the time when the Gospel WAS first preached (Hint, you'll find it in Acts chapter 2 and NOT before).  

Then ask yourself "Have I truly followed the PLAN of Salvation" or in other words, "Have I been completely obedient to the scriptures in following the PLAN of Salvation as it was first preached?" 

Nevertheless, when you can answer my questions posed to you, I will answer yours. 

Note: This was more than 5 years ago (Email received and replied to on March 7, 2002.) I have received NO further questions or comments from this fellow. 

Question: Since Oneness people teach that Jesus is in "Spirit Form" now, how will he return? In his body? Will he "change forms" from the Father's form to the Son's form and then come back? 

Answer Given By Some: Of course Jesus will come back in a Body. He will come back in the form of the Son, but will be the Father "all in all" when this heaven and earth pass away. 

Correct Answer: I must say that the original question is one that I myself would ask. The truth of this one is that ONENESS (True Oneness) does NOT teach a "shape-shifting" (or a transforming) of God. God did not "change into" the Son. THAT IS THE JESUS ONLY DOCTRINE which teaches such things (some UPC Churches teach this also)!  

Fact: Jesus IS GOD in bodily form: John 1:14 "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth." Note the scripture says "Was Made" flesh...not "Became" (or changed forms into) Flesh. Don't stop there though: 

Acts 1:11 " Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven." 

Revelation 1:7 "Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen." 

In like manner? Absolutely. When he comes, where will he come to? 

Zechariah 14:4 "And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east, and the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst..." 

Jesus has a BODY. (Colossians 2:9, Hebrews 13:8). He is NOT a Spirit and declared so himself.  

Luke 24:39 "Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have." 

(Also see Matthew 24:30; 26:64; Mark 13:26; 14:62) 

Though there are many in our study of the Godhead on this site, let me give you a couple of scripture verses for you Jesus Only people to reconcile: 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 but specifically: 

1 Corinthians 15:24 "Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power." 

1 Corinthians 15:28 "And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all." 

Who is the one that "put all things under him"? WHEN is the "then" that is referred to in this passage? Verse 24 says it is "the end". This means that these passages of scripture HAVE NOT taken place yet. So, how do YOU explain them?  

I would hope that you use the Word of God and not any other speculation or guessing. If you cannot explain this by the Word alone, then you should study the Godhead a bit more. 

Question: You think you're slick don't you?  (This guy proceeded for the next several paragraphs describing and listing the various Cemeteries .... oops .... I mean Seminaries available and questioning which one I attended) 

Correct Answer: Slick?  No Sir.  That title belongs to former President Bill Clinton.  As far as which Cemetery I have attended:  I've buried the dead in many different ones.  While I realize you asked about Seminaries, allow me to answer that one too:  I haven't been in one yet that isn't full of "spiritually" dead men.  I can, however name you several men I know personally that went into Seminary full of faith, full of vigor, full of zeal and full of the Spirit who came out in vast unbelief and more cold in the faith than ever.   

To fully answer your question though, I went to the same Seminary that Peter, Paul, Barnabas and the other did.  Thanks for asking.

My intention has been to offend no one, yet in teaching, there are always those who are offended. It is a shame that men will sit in the darkness and cry foul, when what they should do is turn on a light and study. Opinion is unacceptable as doctrine and it should always be stated that it is "opinion".

Thanks, and May the Lord Jesus keep and bless you.

Keep the questions coming and I'll keep the answers posted!