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King James Version or New International Version:  Who Really Cares?

Did You Know: 

THE BLOOD OF THE LORD JESUS IS OMITTED 15 TIMES IN THE NIV:

See Matthew 27:4,24,25; Acts 5:28, 20:28; Romans 3:25, 5:9; Ephesians 1:7, 2:13; Colossians 1:14, 20; Hebrews 10:19; I Peter 1:19; Revelation 1:5, 5:9.

ANY CHANGE FROM THE ORIGINAL MEANING MUST BE CONSIDERED AS A DEMONIC ATTACK ON THE WORD OF GOD.

Let's look at some others! Let's start at some very basic scripture that everyone should be able to answer.

Remember to keep in mind that MANY people have never owned or read a King James version of the bible and they have NO PRIOR REFERENCE and would be taking their  teaching directly from the NIV.

What is so bad about that?  If it's correct, there isn't a problem, but what would an incorrect or a corrupt version of the bible do to them?  Let's begin.


Who was the FATHER  of JESUS? 

Everyone would naturally answer that GOD was, but if you have an NIV, there is doubt!

Examine Luke 2:33:

The King James Bible reads, "And JOSEPH and his mother marvelled at those things which were spoken of him."  

Now read the NIV: "The CHILD'S FATHER and mother marveled at what was said about him."

What was that? The "Child's Father"? Who was the Father of Jesus? If you believe in the virgin birth of Jesus Christ, then you CANNOT call Joseph, "the Child's Father". This is what the Pharisees did!

You will find as we study this further, that the NIV directly attacks and calls into question the virgin birth of Christ on multiple occasions throughout its pages.

You may be saying "come on now, THAT is no big deal, and besides, everyone knows what is meant". But to you I would ask REALLY? Do you mean to tell me that just  ONE lie in a book presented as the Word of God is no big deal?  Do you believe that someone would read the phrase: "CHILD'S FATHER was with Mary" and that person would naturally assume that GOD was the Father?  I don't think so, especially not if the only thing you've ever read was an NIV.

Your natural conclusion from reading this verse would then be that JOSEPH was his father.  How serious is this one corrupted verse?  If you believe the verse, then you believe that Joseph was the natural father of Jesus, that God was NOT his father and that Jesus was born of fornication between Mary and Joseph.  Do you personally believe that?   


The NIV is FULL of subtle (and some not so subtle) changes and PERVERSIONS such as this. As we continue further, you'll soon see that all references to the deity of Jesus Christ are removed AND references to the saving power of the Blood of Jesus Christ are removed.

Look at John 3:16: This is often the first verse that many people commit to memory regardless of denomination, church history or other religious affiliation.

"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only BEGOTTEN son, that whosever believeth in him SHOULD (don't read that word as SHALL, it is not "Shall", the word is SHOULD) not perish, but have everlasting life." (KING JAMES VERSION).

The NIV reads, "For God so loved the world that he gave his ONE AND ONLY SON, that whoever believes in him shall  not perish but have eternal life"

Jesus was the ONE AND ONLY SON? Is that a true statement? Was Jesus the ONLY Son of God?

Read  Luke 3:38, Job 1:6, Philippians 2:15, 1 John 3:2 for starters.

The NIV has purposely removed the word "Begotten" as if to lead us into believing that Jesus has not come "in the flesh".  Remember 1 John 4:3? No?  Perhaps you need to read that verse for yourself. 

To further reinforce the thought that removal of the word "begotten"  denies that Jesus has come in the flesh, look at 1 John 3:2.  NOTE that the phrase "in the flesh" is removed from this verse!

Jesus was NOT the "one and only son" but was in fact the ONLY BEGOTTEN Son. He was the ONLY one "procreated" or "fathered" by GOD. The only one BORN OF FLESH by God. Yet, the NIV, as we will see in a continuance of the study, is full of these types of changes. 

 



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